Hello OzBargain,
Not sure if you can help.
I was reading over a Section32 which showed the subdivision of a plot of land. The land is a standard rectangle in shape. There are two townhouses one at the front and one at the back. The front townhouse has its own driveway on the left side, but the second townhouse has the front part of the driveway as listed as common land. I cannot think of a scenario why it would need to be common land given the first townhouse's driveway and garage is completely separate from the second one.
Why isn't the second townhouse's driveway just their own title? What use does the first townhouse have for a driveway which only leads to the second home's garage?
If I am missing something obvious I would love to be made a fool of.
Tried googling this issue can't find anything relevant.
Paint illustration https://imgur.com/a/Poan2c0
It may have something to do with the minimum block size…