Hi!
I had a debate with someone that the owner of a company doesn't pass on GST to the government if they haven't received the GST from the client.
Scenario: A invoice got issued for $100, gst is additional $10. Total is $110 payable by the client. I have entered this invoice in my accounts and books. Upon checking I didn't receive the $110 by the client. However since i have written in my invoices and records (accounts) that $10 GST is payable since i charged it (didn't recive it from client though) do i still pay it to the ATO?
Thanks :)
(my scenario isn't real just simplified.)
Let's put it another way; the person in fact did pay the $10 GST, it's just that only paid you $90 for the goods/services that was provided. Now is the GST payable in that scenario?